eduarchitect
eduarchitect eduarchitect
  • 25-07-2017
  • Mathematics
contestada

What happens when you apply the power rule for integration to the function f(x)=1/x?

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merlynthewhizz
merlynthewhizz merlynthewhizz
  • 31-07-2017
The power rule that applies to [tex]f(x)= \frac{1}{x} [/tex] is [tex]f(x)= x^{-1} [/tex]

Integrating [tex] \int\ {x^{-1} } \, dx [/tex] will give the effect of
[tex] \frac{x^{-1+1} }{-1+1} = \frac{ x^{0} }{0} [/tex], which is undefined since we cannot divide by '0'

The conclusion is that to integrate [tex]f(x)= \frac{1}{x} [/tex] we don't use the power rule. We use instead
[tex] \int\ { \frac{1}{x} } \, dx =ln(x)[/tex]
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